The Present Grace Is Not Incomplete But In Part Unjustified

Ok, so to return to the one verse in the new testament that this mattter hangs on: a least of all such trifles!

Act 13:39 And by him all that believe are justified from all things, from which ye could not be justified by the law of Moses. (KJV)

So I note the following.

1) If Christ's atonement was perfect due to fulfilling the law as a spotless sacrifice, those condemned captive that could not be saved by a spotless offering under the OT law can not be similarly saved.

Yet then the matter of forgiveness is left open for;

2) There is no verse limiting grace but for that of blasphemy against the Holy Spirit.

So, grace has no other limit. And I can happily state:

3) Christ mediated forgivenes of (all and any) sin, where the OT propitiation could not wash sins away with blood: and Christ chooses His elect, not only the righteous but also sinners.

Then Christ's word on forgiveness is enough: that "all manner of sin" should be forgiven but for that blasphemy.

4) Christ is free to elect the gentiles that were never justified under the law of Moses.

And of course, Christ freely chooses His elect: for someone to be excluded from that election requires some equivalent blasphemy even if they be truly contrite. I may happily state that the gospel knows no difference, and I would teach so and without the mechanism of the least because it is scriptural (Acts 13:39 above). God, will always dot His i's and cross His t's.

That any such blasphemy due to some ongoing contract is able to be dissolved without sin, or otherwise freely judged by Christ as if without duress of any true living damnation (but not to the approval of the unrepentant judged for fear of death or reprisal, say by such an unrepentant soul), Christ is free to loose or condemn.

So, the grace exists in full but is not justified by the cross of Christ, though it may already be very real and provided for! Sins are only made against the law, but the law is only to hold over Israel - who then, is (as now) not able to become a citizen of Israel but for the captive of Satan? One as by some oath or contract that would entail perpetual blasphemy of the Holy Spirit or the presence of such blasphemy from others with that record for evidence as against the work in him of the Holy Spirit? Should such a one still be counted a sinner in fault for repenting? Is it yes or no? If it be both, the gospel is inconsistent!

The least then decides the dividing case of the innocent - all contracts are dissolved (to the repentant with faith) without sin, yet the "contract" as a device is then nonsense and must be forgiven all likewise.

Then I would argue that the circuit of the least simply draws to a close the given grace and completes its justification rather than its invention: for I may again state:

Mat 25:24 Then he which had received the one talent came and said, Lord, I knew thee that thou art an hard man, reaping where thou hast not sown, and gathering where thou hast not strawed:
Mat 25:25 And I was afraid, and went and hid thy talent in the earth: lo, there thou hast that is thine.
Mat 25:26 His lord answered and said unto him, Thou wicked and slothful servant, thou knewest that I reap where I sowed not, and gather where I have not strawed:
Mat 25:27 Thou oughtest therefore to have put my money to the exchangers, and then at my coming I should have received mine own with usury. (KJV)

And God has already worked to provide that grace: it is no invention but is found a necessity, it must also be justified to bring the completion of the present age. Then for the worst circumstance of fulfilment, it should happen at the very end.

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